No. I don’t know if he was or not; you never know about anyone other than yourself; but I have no reason to think he was because I’ve never come across any real evidence to suggest it. He was publically accused of molesting a kid in 1993 and criminally charged with molesting a different kid in 2003, but, following the logic of the law that says people are innocent until proven guilty, which is stupid because neither guilt nor innocence should ever be assumed, I think he’s “innocent” in both cases.

That’s based on my assessment of the facts presented. I think both cases were motivated by money and malice more than anything, but that says nothing about him being a pedophile in the general sense of simply being sexually or romantically attracted to kids. That’s much harder, if not impossible, to prove either way. As far as I know, it’s certainly possible. It’s just that I don’t have any evidence to sway my opinion either way, which makes the one-sided title question very easy to answer.
 

Fact Checking The Fans :

Yes.